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IMC / 2017 / Problems / Day 2, P6

IMC 2017 · Day 2 · P6

easy

Let f:[0;+∞)→Rf : [0; +\infty) \to \mathbb{R} be a continuous function such that lim⁡x→+∞f(x)=L\lim\limits_{x \to +\infty} f(x) = L exists (it may be finite or infinite). Prove that lim⁡n→∞∫01f(nx) dx=L.\lim_{n \to \infty} \int_0^1 f(nx)\,dx = L. (Proposed by Alexandr Bolbot, Novosibirsk State University)

Solution 1 of 2 (official)

Case 1: LL is finite. Take an arbitrary ε>0\varepsilon > 0. We construct a number K≥0K \ge 0 such that ∣∫01f(nx) dx−L∣<ε\Bigl| \int_0^1 f(nx)\,dx - L \Bigr| < \varepsilon.

Since lim⁡x→+∞f(x)=L\lim\limits_{x \to +\infty} f(x) = L, there exists a K1≥0K_1 \ge 0 such that ∣f(x)−L∣<ε2\bigl| f(x) - L \bigr| < \frac{\varepsilon}{2} for every x≥K1x \ge K_1. Hence, for n≥K1n \ge K_1 we have ∣∫01f(nx) dx−L∣=∣1n∫0nf(x) dx−L∣=1n∣∫0n(f−L)∣≤≤1n∫0n∣f−L∣=1n(∫0K1∣f−L∣+∫K1n∣f−L∣)<1n(∫0K1∣f−L∣+∫K1nε2)==1n∫0K1∣f−L∣+n−K1n⋅ε2<1n∫0K1∣f−L∣+ε2.\begin{align*} \Bigl| \int_0^1 f(nx)\,dx - L \Bigr| &= \Bigl| \frac1n \int_0^n f(x)\,dx - L \Bigr| = \frac1n \Bigl| \int_0^n \bigl( f - L \bigr) \Bigr| \le \\ &\le \frac1n \int_0^n |f - L| = \frac1n \left( \int_0^{K_1} |f - L| + \int_{K_1}^n |f - L| \right) < \frac1n \left( \int_0^{K_1} |f - L| + \int_{K_1}^n \frac{\varepsilon}{2} \right) = \\ &= \frac1n \int_0^{K_1} |f - L| + \frac{n - K_1}{n} \cdot \frac{\varepsilon}{2} < \frac1n \int_0^{K_1} |f - L| + \frac{\varepsilon}{2}. \end{align*} If n≥K2=2ε∫0K1∣f−L∣n \ge K_2 = \frac{2}{\varepsilon} \int_0^{K_1} |f - L| then the first term is at most ε2\frac{\varepsilon}{2}. Then for x≥K:=max⁡(K1,K2)x \ge K := \max(K_1, K_2) we have ∣∫01f(nx) dx−L∣<ε2+ε2=ε.\Bigl| \int_0^1 f(nx)\,dx - L \Bigr| < \frac{\varepsilon}{2} + \frac{\varepsilon}{2} = \varepsilon.

Case 2: L=+∞L = +\infty. Take an arbitrary real MM; we need a K≥0K \ge 0 such that ∫01f(nx) dx>M\int_0^1 f(nx)\,dx > M for every x≥Kx \ge K.

Since lim⁡x→+∞f(x)=∞\lim\limits_{x \to +\infty} f(x) = \infty, there exists a K1≥0K_1 \ge 0 such that f(x)>M+1f(x) > M + 1 for every x≥K1x \ge K_1. Hence, for n≥2K1n \ge 2 K_1 we have ∫01f(nx) dx=1n∫0nf(x) dx=1n∫0nf=1n(∫0K1f+∫K1nf)==1n(∫0K1f+∫K1n(M+1))=1n(∫0K1f−K1(M+1))+M+1.\begin{align*} \int_0^1 f(nx)\,dx = \frac1n \int_0^n f(x)\,dx = \frac1n \int_0^n f &= \frac1n \left( \int_0^{K_1} f + \int_{K_1}^n f \right) = \\ &= \frac1n \left( \int_0^{K_1} f + \int_{K_1}^n (M + 1) \right)

= \frac1n \left( \int_0^{K_1} f - K_1 (M + 1) \right) + M + 1. \end{align*} If n≥K2:=∣∫0K1f−K1(M+1)∣n \ge K_2 := \Bigl| \int_0^{K_1} f - K_1 (M + 1) \Bigr| then the first term is at least −1-1. For x≥K:=max⁡(K1,K2)x \ge K := \max(K_1, K_2) we have ∫01f(nx) dx>M\int_0^1 f(nx)\,dx > M.

Case 3: L=−∞L = -\infty. We can repeat the steps in Case 2 for the function −f-f.

Solution 2 of 2 (official)

Let F(x)=∫0xfF(x) = \int_0^x f. For t>0t > 0 we have ∫01f(tx) dx=F(t)t.\int_0^1 f(tx)\,dx = \frac{F(t)}{t}. Since lim⁡t→∞t=∞\lim\limits_{t \to \infty} t = \infty in the denominator and lim⁡t→∞F′(t)=lim⁡t→∞f(t)=L\lim\limits_{t \to \infty} F'(t) = \lim\limits_{t \to \infty} f(t) = L, L'Hospital's rule proves lim⁡t→∞F(t)t=lim⁡t→∞F′(t)1=lim⁡t→∞f(t)1=L\lim\limits_{t \to \infty} \frac{F(t)}{t} = \lim\limits_{t \to \infty} \frac{F'(t)}{1} = \lim\limits_{t \to \infty} \frac{f(t)}{1} = L. Then it follows that lim⁡n→∞F(n)n=L\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \frac{F(n)}{n} = L.

How the field did

contestants scored
315
average (of 10)
8.01
solved (≥ 80%)
73.0%
near-0 (≤ 10%)
8.9%
discrimination
0.35

Score distribution (field cohort)

Computed on contestants with a meaningful total (field cohort); discrimination is the corrected item–total correlation.

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