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IMC / 1994 / Problems / Day 1, P5

IMC 1994 · Day 1 · P5

a) Let f∈C[0,b]f \in C[0,b], g∈C(R)g \in C(\mathbb{R}) and let gg be periodic with period bb. Prove that ∫0bf(x)g(nx) dx\int\limits_0^b f(x) g(nx)\,dx has a limit as n→∞n \to \infty and lim⁡n→∞∫0bf(x)g(nx) dx=1b∫0bf(x) dx⋅∫0bg(x) dx.\lim_{n \to \infty} \int_0^b f(x) g(nx)\,dx = \frac{1}{b} \int_0^b f(x)\,dx \cdot \int_0^b g(x)\,dx.

b) Find lim⁡n→∞∫0πsin⁡x1+3cos⁡2nx dx.\lim_{n \to \infty} \int_0^{\pi} \frac{\sin x}{1 + 3\cos^2 nx}\,dx.

Solution (official)

Set ∥g∥1=∫0b∣g(x)∣ dx\|g\|_1 = \int\limits_0^b |g(x)|\,dx and ω(f,t)=sup⁡{∣f(x)−f(y)∣:x,y∈[0,b], ∣x−y∣≤t}.\omega(f,t) = \sup \{ |f(x) - f(y)| : x, y \in [0,b],\ |x - y| \le t \}. In view of the uniform continuity of ff we have ω(f,t)→0\omega(f,t) \to 0 as t→0t \to 0. Using the periodicity of gg we get ∫0bf(x)g(nx) dx=∑k=1n∫b(k−1)/nbk/nf(x)g(nx) dx=∑k=1nf(bk/n)∫b(k−1)/nbk/ng(nx) dx+∑k=1n∫b(k−1)/nbk/n{f(x)−f(bk/n)}g(nx) dx=1n∑k=1nf(bk/n)∫0bg(x) dx+O(ω(f,b/n)∥g∥1)=1b∑k=1n∫b(k−1)/nbk/nf(x) dx∫0bg(x) dx+1b∑k=1n(bnf(bk/n)−∫b(k−1)/nbk/nf(x) dx)∫0bg(x) dx+O(ω(f,b/n)∥g∥1)=1b∫0bf(x) dx∫0bg(x) dx+O(ω(f,b/n)∥g∥1).\begin{align*} \int_0^b f(x) g(nx)\,dx &= \sum_{k=1}^{n} \int_{b(k-1)/n}^{bk/n} f(x) g(nx)\,dx \\ &= \sum_{k=1}^{n} f(bk/n) \int_{b(k-1)/n}^{bk/n} g(nx)\,dx + \sum_{k=1}^{n} \int_{b(k-1)/n}^{bk/n} \{ f(x) - f(bk/n) \} g(nx)\,dx \\ &= \frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^{n} f(bk/n) \int_0^b g(x)\,dx + O\bigl( \omega(f, b/n) \|g\|_1 \bigr) \\ &= \frac{1}{b} \sum_{k=1}^{n} \int_{b(k-1)/n}^{bk/n} f(x)\,dx \int_0^b g(x)\,dx \\ &\quad + \frac{1}{b} \sum_{k=1}^{n} \left( \frac{b}{n} f(bk/n) - \int_{b(k-1)/n}^{bk/n} f(x)\,dx \right) \int_0^b g(x)\,dx + O\bigl( \omega(f, b/n) \|g\|_1 \bigr) \\ &= \frac{1}{b} \int_0^b f(x)\,dx \int_0^b g(x)\,dx + O\bigl( \omega(f, b/n) \|g\|_1 \bigr). \end{align*} This proves a). For b) we set b=πb = \pi, f(x)=sin⁡xf(x) = \sin x, g(x)=(1+3cos⁡2x)−1g(x) = (1 + 3\cos^2 x)^{-1}. From a) and ∫0πsin⁡x dx=2,∫0π(1+3cos⁡2x)−1 dx=π2\int_0^{\pi} \sin x\,dx = 2, \qquad \int_0^{\pi} (1 + 3\cos^2 x)^{-1}\,dx = \frac{\pi}{2} we get lim⁡n→∞∫0πsin⁡x1+3cos⁡2nx dx=1.\lim_{n \to \infty} \int_0^{\pi} \frac{\sin x}{1 + 3\cos^2 nx}\,dx = 1.

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