Unofficial archive — problems, solutions & results © IMC, reproduced with permission.

IMC / 2019 / Problems / Day 2, P6

IMC 2019 · Day 2 · P6

medium

Let f,g:R⟶Rf, g : \mathbb{R} \longrightarrow \mathbb{R} be continuous functions such that gg is differentiable. Assume that (f(0)−g′(0))(g′(1)−f(1))>0\bigl( f(0) - g'(0) \bigr) \bigl( g'(1) - f(1) \bigr) > 0. Show that there exists a point c∈(0,1)c \in (0, 1) such that f(c)=g′(c)f(c) = g'(c).

Proposed by Fereshteh Malek, K. N. Toosi University of Technology

Solution (official)

Define F(x)=∫0xf(t) dtF(x) = \int_0^x f(t)\,dt and let h(x)=F(x)−g(x)h(x) = F(x) - g(x). By the continuouity of ff we have F′=fF' = f, so h′=f−g′h' = f - g'.

The assumption can be re-written as h′(0)(−h′(1))>0h'(0) \bigl( -h'(1) \bigr) > 0, so h′(0)h'(0) and h′(1)h'(1) have opposite signs. Then, by the Mean Value Theorem For Derivatives (Darboux property of derivatives) it follows that there is a point cc between 0 and 1 where h′(c)=0h'(c) = 0, so f(c)=g′(c)f(c) = g'(c).

How the field did

contestants scored
360
average (of 10)
6.09
solved (≥ 80%)
42.5%
near-0 (≤ 10%)
1.9%
discrimination
0.46

Score distribution (field cohort)

Computed on contestants with a meaningful total (field cohort); discrimination is the corrected item–total correlation.

Similar problems

IMC 2026 · Day 2 · P7mediumavg 5.4/10 · solved 43% · near-0 28% · disc 0.52
IMC 2014 · Day 1 · P3mediumavg 4.2/10 · solved 40% · near-0 54% · disc 0.53
IMC 2026 · Day 2 · P6mediumavg 6.3/10 · solved 46% · near-0 13% · disc 0.60
IMC 2009 · Day 2 · P7mediumavg 4.9/10 · solved 39% · near-0 42% · disc 0.51