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IMC / 2009 / Problems / Day 1, P1

IMC 2009 · Day 1 · P1

easy

Suppose that ff and gg are real-valued functions on the real line and f(r)≤g(r)f(r) \le g(r) for every rational rr. Does this imply that f(x)≤g(x)f(x) \le g(x) for every real xx if

a) ff and gg are non-decreasing?

b) ff and gg are continuous?

Solution (official)

a) No. Counter-example: ff and gg can be chosen as the characteristic functions of [3,∞)[\sqrt{3}, \infty) and (3,∞)(\sqrt{3}, \infty), respectively.

b) Yes. By the assumptions g−fg - f is continuous on the whole real line and nonnegative on the rationals. Since any real number can be obtained as a limit of rational numbers we get that g−fg - f is nonnegative on the whole real line.

How the field did

contestants scored
334
average (of 10)
9.28
solved (≥ 80%)
88.0%
near-0 (≤ 10%)
1.8%
discrimination
0.33

Score distribution (field cohort)

Computed on contestants with a meaningful total (field cohort); discrimination is the corrected item–total correlation.

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